**1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data**

If I have a wave function that goes to infinity can I assume that the derivative also goes to 0 at infinity?

**2. Relevant equations**

**3. The attempt at a solution**

The reason I think it does is because the wavefunction and its derivative must be continuous everywhere except at potentials that go to infinity. Is this the correct logic?

http://ift.tt/1nyQukA