**Ok so I’ve seen the convolution theorem written as:**

**F**(h(x)[itex]\otimes[/itex]g(x))=H(k)G(k)

*(And this is how it appears when I have a quick google).*

*My book then does a problem in which is uses:*

**F**(h(x)g(x))=H(k)[itex]\otimes[/itex]G(k)

*Where H(k)= F(h(x)) and similarly G(k)=F(g(x)),*

and F represents a fourier transform

**My question**

– I can’t see how these are equivalent at all?

**Many Thanks to anyone who can help shed some light ! **

http://ift.tt/1bSwkhd