Silly question about Newton’s laws of motion

I’m sorry I didn’t use the outline provided automatically by the thread. My question does not focus on the maths; sorry if I chose the wrong section (I’m new here).

Anyhow, what I’m asking is: Why does Newtonian Physics state that a moving object with uniform velocity (abiding by the definition of "inert" – not being accelerated; maintaining its state) has balanced forces acting upon it? I can understand why that is the case of a stationary object, but it does not make sense for me when talking about a moving one. The way I see it, if the body is doing distance over time then evidently that can only happen while it’s affected by a net force. Say we’re talking about a car (I know, the most typical example but oh well); if it’s running then it must be because of the force of the gas overcoming the force of friction (and the force of the air? Is that correct?). If it has balanced forces, then it must necessarily stop. Right?

I’m pretty sure I must be thinking about it wrongly. Or maybe I got bad sources.

I would really appreciate some help 🙂 I know it must be something really basic for you guys, but it would really help this amateur learning science as a hobby.

http://ift.tt/1bQuvSo

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