Fourier Transforms – The Convolution Theorem.

Ok so I’ve seen the convolution theorem written as:

F(h(x)[itex]\otimes[/itex]g(x))=H(k)G(k)

(And this is how it appears when I have a quick google).

My book then does a problem in which is uses:

F(h(x)g(x))=H(k)[itex]\otimes[/itex]G(k)

Where H(k)=F(h(x)) and similarly G(k)=F(g(x)),
and F represents a fourier transform

My question
– I can’t see how these are equivalent at all?

Many Thanks to anyone who can help shed some light !

http://ift.tt/1bSwkhd

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